Tom Heneghan at FaithWorld has a post on …
The post links to an interview with the Archbishop of Paris, who mentions court practices in Muslim countries (they work through Ramadan).
But why? What do the court practices of Egypt during Ramadan have to do with French court practices?
There seems to be some kind of dissonance when it comes to issues like this: on the one hand Muslims living in the UK, France, etc. should conform to the cultural norms of their countries* and not of their ‘ancestral’ homelands. Yet you will see commentators and politicians invoking practices of these very same Muslim countries.
“They do it in Saudi!”
Either the man standing trial, in France, is allowed to make an appeal for a delay to trial (for whatever reason and as long as it is done within the framework of French law); or he is not. The court in France will decide either way (and the court said he can).
It shouldn’t matter what Egyptians (or Saudis, Pakistanis, Iranians, Tunisians, Turks, etc) do.
*And this is, in general, a perfectly reasonable demand.